Introduction
Why is it necessary to understand the person of Christ?
Because there never was a person like Him.
How so?
Because in the one person of Jesus there were two natures, a human and a divine. No other person in history was such.
The Humanity of Jesus
What does it mean to say that Jesus was human?
This means that Jesus was human with all its experience of health & sickness, sorrow & joy, prosperity & adversity, etc. with the exception that Jesus had no sin.
Why do you make the exception pertaining to sin?
Because the Bible teaches us this. When the author of Hebrews is writing about Jesus as the great High Priest of His people, he writes:
Therefore, since we have a great high priest who has passed through the heavens, Jesus the Son of God, let us hold fast our confession. For we do not have a high priest who cannot sympathize with our weaknesses, but One who has been tempted in all things as we are, yet without sin. Therefore let us draw near with confidence to the throne of grace, so that we may receive mercy and find grace to help in time of need. (Hebrews 4:14-16)
We find Paul qualifying himself in this regard in Romans.
For what the Law could not do, weak as it was through the flesh, God did: sending His own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh and as an offering for sin, He condemned sin in the flesh, (Romans 8:3)
Note the Paul says that the Son of God came in the likeness of sinful flesh. Paul uses this language to avoid the implication that Jesus was actually sinful just like other humans.
Where does the Bible teach that Jesus was fully human?
First, is the Bible’s record of Jesus’ humanity. He was born in the usual human way (Luke 2:6-7), experienced hunger (Matthew 4:2; Mark 11:12), thirst (John 19:28), and weariness. (John 4:6-7) He enjoyed time with family (John 2:12), attended a wedding feast (John 2:2), received a rebuke from his brothers (John 7:3-8), displayed a deep love for His mother (John 19:25-26), and wept at the grave of Lazarus. (John 11:35) He trembled in the face of His coming death. (John 12:27; Matthew 26:39) Finally, Jesus bled (John 19:34) and died. (Luke 23:46)
Second, consider the Bible’s teaching that Jesus had to be human in order to save His people.
Hebrews 2
Where does the Bible teach this?
This is the teaching of the book of Hebrews. In chapter 1&2, the author is proving that Jesus is superior to any of the angels. He does this in Hebrews 1:7-14 by giving four quotations from the Old Testament (the LXX):
- Psalm 104:4,
- Psalm 45:6-7;
- Psalm 102:25-27;
- Psalm 110:1.
Then, in chapter 2, he gives an extended exegesis of Psalm 8 in support of his point that Jesus is superior to the angels. He quotes the Psalm:
What is man that You take thought of him, and the son of man that You care for him? Yet You have made him a little lower than God, and You crown him with glory and majesty! You make him to rule over the works of Your hands; You have put all things under his feet, (Psalm 8:4-6)
and then shows that the “man” here is really the Lord Jesus Christ (see the paraphrase here):
But we do see Him who was made for a little while lower than the angels, namely, Jesus… writes the author about the man in Psalm 8.
How does this show that Jesus had to be human in order to save His people?
These verses do not show this, but the author goes on. He writes:
But we do see Him who was made for a little while lower than the angels, namely, Jesus, because of the suffering of death crowned with glory and honor, so that by the grace of God He might taste death for everyone. For it was fitting for Him, for whom are all things, and through whom are all things, in bringing many sons to glory, to perfect the author of their salvation through sufferings. (Hebrews 2:9-10)
Here we see the work of God the Father whose plan it was to bring many sons to glory. This He does by fitting Jesus out to be their Savior or “the Author of their salvation.” This “fitting out” is done by the suffering which Jesus had to endure to satisfy the justice of God which was against the many sons. Then our author states the doctrine we have been looking for:
For both He who sanctifies and those who are sanctified are all from one Father; for which reason He is not ashamed to call them brethren, saying, “I WILL PROCLAIM YOUR NAME TO MY BRETHREN, IN THE MIDST OF THE CONGREGATION I WILL SING YOUR PRAISE.” And again, “I WILL PUT MY TRUST IN HIM.” And again, “BEHOLD, I AND THE CHILDREN WHOM GOD HAS GIVEN ME.” (Hebrews 2:11-13)
Explain how this pertains to our point about the humanity of Jesus?
The author states that both Jesus (He who sanctifies) and the people He came to save (those who are sanctified) are all from one __________. ὅ τε γὰρ ἁγιάζων, καὶ οἱ ἁγιαζόμενοι, ἐξ ἑνὸς πάντες…
Why did you put a blank there?
Because it is not entirely clear how the author intends us to understand this. Jesus and His people are all from one…what? (see the paraphrase here). One possible way to understand this is that both Jesus and His people have one nature, that is one human nature. This makes good sense of the reason given in the next clause for which reason He is not ashamed to call them brethren. The thought would be that Jesus and His people all share the same human nature; and therefore, Jesus, is not ashamed to be identified with them and to be their Savior and Champion.
Why do you say the sufferings were for the purpose of satisfying the justice of God?
The thought world behind the word “to sanctify” ἁγιάζω is that of of the Old Testament sacrifices of atonement. Stuart says (p308) that this should be translated “…both He who makes expiation for sin, and they for whom expiation is made…” He argues that the word ἁγιάζω corresponds to the Hebrew הִקְדִּיש קִדֵּש, (more) which often means, to consecrate to God as an offering. He gives extensive support for this from the LXX. It was by reason of these sacrifices that God was satisfied (Numbers 16:46; 2 Samuel 24:25) and the Old Testament worshipper was forgiven. (Leviticus 4:20, 27, 31, 35) The word is also used this way in Hebrews 10:10; 13:12 This is also the thought behind Jesus tasting death for everyone. (Hebrews 2:9)
Does the author say more about Jesus’ humanity?
He does. After giving some references from the Old Testament in support of this, he writes:
Therefore, since the children share in flesh and blood, He Himself likewise also partook of the same, that through death He might render powerless him who had the power of death, that is, the devil, and might free those who through fear of death were subject to slavery all their lives. For assuredly He does not give help to angels, but He gives help to the descendant of Abraham. Therefore, He had to be made like His brethren in all things, so that He might become a merciful and faithful high priest in things pertaining to God, to make propitiation for the sins of the people. For since He Himself was tempted in that which He has suffered, He is able to come to the aid of those who are tempted. (Hebrews 2:14-18)
Here we are told twice the purpose for Jesus taking on a human nature.
What is the first?
The first is contained in these lines: Therefore, since the children [those whom Jesus will save] share in flesh and blood [have a human nature], He Himself [Jesus] likewise also partook of the same [human nature], that through [His] death [on the cross made possible because He now had a human nature] He might render powerless [by His triumphal resurrection out of the grave] him who had the power of death [which power he secured by successfully leading men into sin (Romans 5:12)], that is, the devil, and might free those [of His people] who through fear of death were subject to slavery all their lives [that is they lived in constant dread and terror of dying].
We are taught here that Jesus took a human nature that he might cancel the power of the devil and liberate those whom he held in bondage.
What is the second?
The second purpose for Jesus’ humanity is that He might be their priest and make propitiation.
What is meant here by Jesus being a priest?
It means that Jesus will be their Mediator and will represent them before God.
How does He do this?
He is their propitiation which means that He takes away God’s wrath against them by being their sin offering.
The Deity of Jesus
What does it mean to speak of the deity of Jesus?
This means that Jesus is God. This is the central mystery which lays at the very heart of the Christian faith; see Trinity. Throughout their history, Christians have wrestled with the best way of articulating this mystery.
The Gospel of John
Where does the Bible teach that Jesus is God?
The most obvious place to turn is the gospel of John where the author identifies his purpose for writing this gospel:
Therefore many other signs Jesus also performed in the presence of the disciples, which are not written in this book; but these have been written so that you may believe that Jesus is the Christ, the Son of God; and that believing you may have life in His name. (John 20:30-31)
Here John states his purpose very explicitly. He wanted to prove that Jesus was the Messiah and the Son of God.
How does this speak to the idea of the deity of Christ?
Because that is what was meant by the term “Son of God;” see here.
Philippians 2:6
What other Scriptures shows that Jesus is God?
Consider Paul’s teaching in Philippians where he calls the believers to have the same humility which they saw in Jesus:
Have this attitude in yourselves which was also in Christ Jesus, who, although He existed in the form of God, did not regard equality with God a thing to be grasped, but emptied Himself, taking the form of a bond-servant, and being made in the likeness of men. Being found in appearance as a man, He humbled Himself by becoming obedient to the point of death, even death on a cross. For this reason also, God highly exalted Him, and bestowed on Him the name which is above every name, so that at the name of Jesus EVERY KNEE WILL BOW, of those who are in heaven and on earth and under the earth, 11 and that every tongue will confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father. (Philippians 2:5-11)
The example that Jesus set for us is one of humility. Even though He was fully God (in the form of God), He did not insist on that great fact. Instead, He humbled Himself and came to earth for our salvation.
How are we to understand these verses?
Let’s move through this verse slowly:
| Have this attitude in yourselves which was also in Christ Jesus, who, although He existed in the form of God, | Paul wants us to have the same attitude which Jesus had. Now this attitude is seen by noticing in the first place that Jesus was fully divine. In all respects, He was eternally God. |
| …did not regard equality with God a thing to be grasped… | Yes, Jesus was equally divine with God the Father, but He did not stand on His rights. He was willing to humble Himself even though He was equal in glory with His Father. |
| …but emptied Himself… | He humbled Himself and laid aside His divine glory (not His divinity) and came to earth for our salvation. |
| …taking the form of a bond-servant… | Jesus did not just become human but He became the lowest kind of human. He humbled Himself so low so that He could save His people. |
| …and being made in the likeness of men. | Jesus took on a human body and soul. |
What does the apostle mean by the expression “form of God?”
To us, this sounds like saying that Jesus was like God or had the appearance of God. The truth is, this term means that Jesus was of the very same essence of God. In other words, He was fully God, on an equal plane as God the Father.
Why do you say this?
Because the apostle goes on to say that Jesus did not regard equality with God as something to be held on to. The word equality here has even become a prefix in the English language which gives us a clue to its meaning.
- Take an isosceles triangle which means a triangle with two sides of equal length.
- An isotope is a variant of a chemical element where the atoms have the same number of protons (which determines the element itself and its place on the periodic table) but a different number of neutrons in the nucleus.
Why is this important?
Because this expression equality with God teaches us how to understand being in the form of God. “being in the form of God” is a synonymous expression with “being equal with God.” It means that Jesus was equal with His Father in all the divine attributes and glory.
How do the Arians understand this text?
The New World Translation has this translation:
Keep this mental attitude in you that was also in Christ Jesus, who, although he was existing in God’s form, did not even consider the idea of trying to be equal to God. No, but he emptied himself and took a slave’s form and became human. More than that, when he came as a man, he humbled himself and became obedient to the point of death, yes, death on a torture stake. For this very reason, God exalted him to a superior position and kindly gave him the name that is above every other name, so that in the name of Jesus every knee should bend—of those in heaven and those on earth and those under the ground—and every tongue should openly acknowledge that Jesus Christ is Lord to the glory of God the Father.
Note that this translation does not understand Jesus to be equal to God but simply similar to God or in God’s form. The translators of this version include a note here:
The Greek expression rendered “form” (mor·pheʹ) basically refers to “nature; appearance; shape; likeness.” Jesus was a spirit person just as “God is a Spirit.” (Joh 4:24 and study note) The same Greek term is used of Jesus’ taking “a slave’s form” when he “became flesh,” or became a human.—Php 2:7; Joh 1:14.
The clause did not regard equality with God a thing to be grasped is understood by them to mean that Jesus did not grasp equality with God in the sense that He made no attempt to obtain a status which did not belong to Him and was not His to take. Here too there is a note from the translators:
Or “did not regard equality with God as something to be seized (grasped).” Paul here encourages the Philippians to cultivate an outstanding attitude like that of Jesus. At Php 2:3, Paul tells them: “With humility consider others superior to you.” In verse 5, he continues: “Keep this mental attitude in you that was also in Christ Jesus.” Jesus, who considered God to be superior, never ‘grasped for equality with God.’ Instead, he “humbled himself and became obedient to the point of death.” (Php 2:8; Joh 5:30; 14:28; 1Co 15:24-28) Jesus’ view was not like that of the Devil, who urged Eve to make herself like God, to be equal to Him. (Ge 3:5) Jesus perfectly exemplified Paul’s point here—namely, the importance of humility and obedience to the Creator, Jehovah God.—See study note on trying to be in this verse.
With regards to the word “something to be grasped” (ἁρπαγμὸν), the translators write:
The Greek noun used here (har·pag·mosʹ; lit., “a thing to be seized”) is derived from the verb har·paʹzo, which has the basic meaning “to seize; to snatch.” Some have suggested that this term refers to retaining something already possessed. However, the Scriptures never use the Greek term to mean the holding on to something already in one’s possession. Rather, it is often rendered “seize” or “snatch (away)” or by other such expressions. (Mt 11:12; 12:29; 13:19; Joh 6:15; 10:12, 28, 29; Ac 8:39; 23:10; 2Co 12:2, 4; 1Th 4:17; Jude 23; Re 12:5) If Jesus “did not even consider the idea of trying to be equal to God,” it must be that he was never equal to God.
Where do these go wrong?
There are two decisions that need to be made here:
- the correct translation of “form of God”
- the correct understanding of the grasping of equality with God;
Start with the first:
To us, the word form sounds very much like appearance or the basic outline of something, but this is incorrect. This word had a different meaning in the thought world of the Greco-Roman world. Vincent writes (p430):
We must here dismiss from our minds the idea of shape. The word is used in its philosophic sense, to denote that expression of being which carries in itself the distinctive nature and character of the being to whom it pertains, and is thus permanently identified with that nature and character. Thus it is distinguished from σχῆμα, fashion, comprising that which appeals to the senses and which is changeable. Μορφῆ or form is identified with the essence of a person or thing: σχῆμα or fashion is an accident which may change without affecting the form.
The evidence for this understanding is given in Lightfoot’s study (p127) of this word. So the translators note which indicates that the Greek expression rendered “form” basically refers to “nature; appearance; shape; likeness” is just incorrect.
What other clue is there to the meaning of “form of God?”
In the sentence, there is an anaphoric article (see here). This means that the expression “being equal with God” is referring back to the expression “form of God.” Paul means us to understand these expressions as synonymous.
What about the second?
Here the question is how to understand …did not regard equality with God a thing to be grasped… On the one hand, we can think of the thing as something already in possession and the person is holding on to it tightly. On the other hand, it could mean something that we do not have in our possession and is something we would like to grasp or take into our possession. A word study of this word (ἁρπαγμὸν) does not give us any help; both meanings are possible. The decision must be made from the context.
How do the Arians understand this clause?
First, their interpretation assumes that “form of God” means being similar to or like God. Thus, they understand the text to be saying that Jesus was already like God, and He did not regard full equality with God as something to be reached for and taken. In doing this, we see His humility, and we should act similarly.
What is wrong with this understanding?
- We have already shown that this is a mistaken understanding of the expression “form of God.”
- Second, in v7, we read that Jesus emptied Himself. The question naturally rises, emptied Himself of what? The translators note for the NWT says that Jesus emptied Himself of His Spirit nature and became human. A better interpretation is that Jesus emptied Himself of His divine glory by becoming human, taking on the form of a slave and submitting to the death on the cross. This shows his humility. A spirit becoming a human is not necessarily a mark of exemplary humility.
- Moule points out (p64) that however we interpret this text, we must never understand the equality with God, which Paul mentions, as something which it was unlawful for Jesus to have. This is what the Arians say; that Jesus was not supposed to seize equality with God. It wasn’t His to have. On the contrary, in this context, this equality with God is the backdrop against which Jesus’ humiliation appears to be all the more gracious and kind and an act of unparalleled humility.
Creeds
What terms should we use to articulate this mystery?
The Christian church, Eastern, Roman Catholic, and Protestant have agreed to use the language of the Nicene creed:
| καὶ εἰς ἕνα Κύριον Ἰησοῦν Χριστὸν τὸν υἱὸν τοῦ Θεοῦ τὸν Μονογενῆ, τὸν ἐκ τοῦ Πατρὸς γεννηθέντα πρὸ πάντων τῶν αἰώνων, Φῶς ἐκ Φωτός, Θεὸν ἀληθινὸν ἐκ Θεοῦ ἀληθινοῦ, γεννηθέντα οὐ ποιηθέντα, ὁμοούσιον τῷ Πατρί, δι’ οὗ τὰ πάντα ἐγένετο· τὸν δι’ ἡμᾶς τοὺς ἀνθρώπους καὶ διὰ τὴν ἡμετέραν σωτηρίαν κατελθόντα ἐκ τῶν οὐρανῶν, καὶ σαρκωθέντα ἐκ Πνεύματος Ἁγίου καὶ Μαρίας τῆς παρθένου, καὶ ἐνανθρωπήσαντα, σταυρωθέντα τε ὑπὲρ ἡμῶν ἐπὶ Ποντίου Πιλάτου, καὶ παθόντα, καὶ ταφέντα, καὶ ἀναστάντα τῇ τρίτῃ ἡμέρᾳ κατὰ τὰς γραφὰς, καὶ ἀνελθόντα εἰς τοὺς οὐρανοὺς, καὶ καθεζόμενον ἐν δεξιᾷ τοῦ Πατρὸς, καὶ πάλιν ἐρχόμενον μετὰ δόξης κρῖναι ζῶντας καὶ νεκρούς, οὗ τῆς βασιλείας οὐκ ἔσται τέλος· |
I believe in one Lord Jesus Christ, the Only Begotten Son of God, born of the Father before all ages. God from God, Light from Light, true God from true God, begotten, not made, consubstantial with the Father; through Him all things were made. For us men and for our salvation He came down from heaven, and by the Holy Spirit was incarnate of the Virgin Mary, and became man. For our sake, He was crucified under Pontius Pilate, He suffered death and was buried, and rose again on the third day in accordance with the Scriptures. He ascended into heaven and is seated at the right hand of the Father. He will come again in glory to judge the living and the dead and His kingdom will have no end. |
Why are these terms important for our understanding of the deity of Christ?
This creed preserves the biblical language used to describe Jesus and also protects against misunderstandings. For example, the creed says that:
- Jesus is begotten but not made. This guards against the idea that the Son of God is not eternal;
- Jesus is consubstantial with the Father. This guards against the idea that Jesus is simply like God or a subordinate God or anything less than fully divine.
What does consubstantial mean?
This word is a translation of the Greek word homoousios or ὁμοούσιον. The prefix con means “with,” and substantial means substance. Other translations of the creed translate this with “one in essence with…” or “of one being with…” or “being of one substance with…” The fourth Lateran council wrote (see §2 here):
We, however, with the approval of this sacred and universal council, believe and confess with Peter Lombard that there exists a certain supreme reality, incomprehensible and ineffable, which truly is the Father and the Son and the holy Spirit, the three persons together and each one of them separately. Therefore in God there is only a Trinity, not a quaternity, since each of the three persons is that reality — that is to say substance, essence or divine nature-which alone is the principle of all things, besides which no other principle can be found. This reality neither begets nor is begotten nor proceeds; the Father begets, the Son is begotten and the holy Spirit proceeds. Thus there is a distinction of persons but a unity of nature. Although therefore the Father is one person, the Son another person and the holy Spirit another person, they are not different realities, but rather that which is the Father is the Son and the holy Spirit, altogether the same; thus according to the orthodox and catholic faith they are believed to be consubstantial. For the Father, in begetting the Son from eternity, gave him his substance, as He himself testifies: What the Father gave Me is greater than all. It cannot be said that the Father gave Him part of His substance and kept part for Himself since the Father’s substance is indivisible, inasmuch as it is altogether simple. Nor can it be said that the Father transferred His substance to the Son, in the act of begetting, as if He gave it to the Son in such a way that He did not retain it for Himself; for otherwise He would have ceased to be substance. It is therefore clear that in being begotten the Son received the Father’s substance without it being diminished in any way, and thus the Father and the Son have the same substance. Thus the Father and the Son and also the holy Spirit proceeding from both are the same reality.
Arius
What did Arius teach on this subject?
See here.