This is the agreement God made with His Son to glorify His Name through the salvation of sinners.
Why do you call this agreement a covenant?
This is the word which God teaches us to use in the Bible.
Why do you call it a covenant “of grace”?
In order to distinguish it from another covenant that God made with men, i.e. the covenant of works.
Where does the Bible teach us about this?
This doctrine is woven throughout the entire Bible.
Luke 22
What are we taught in this text?
This verse teaches us to regard the transaction between the Father and the Son as a covenant. Some have denied this as Mayhue who writes (p254): No explicit, uncontested exegetical evidence in either the Old or New Testaments refers to any covenant(s) made in eternity past.
Why is Mayhue’s teaching here false? I don’t see the word covenant anywhere in Luke 22.
Note the word “grant” in Luke 22:
And there arose also a dispute among them as to which one of them was regarded to be greatest. And He said to them, “The kings of the Gentiles lord it over them; and those who have authority over them are called ‘Benefactors.’ “But [it is] not this way with you, but the one who is the greatest among you must become like the youngest, and the leader like the servant. “For who is greater, the one who reclines [at the table] or the one who serves? Is it not the one who reclines at the table? But I am among you as the one who serves. “You are those who have stood by Me in My trials; and just as My Father has granted Me a kingdom, I grant you that you may eat and drink at My table in My kingdom, and you will sit on thrones judging the twelve tribes of Israel. (Luke 22:24-30)
This word is the word for covenanting; see here. This verse could very well be translated:
“…and just as My Father has covenanted to Me a kingdom, so I covenant to you…”
It’s on the basis of this verse, that the eternal plan of the Father to redeem His people is called a covenant contrary to what Mayhue has asserted above.
Why do you say that this covenant was made in eternity past?
Because Jesus speaks of the Father as the One who made this covenant with Him. Since there is no record of the Father entering into any covenant with Jesus while He was on earth, we conclude that this covenant was established in eternity past or “before the foundation of the world.” Furthermore, Paul, in his letter to Titus, places this promise in eternity past.
Titus 1
What does Paul teach us about the covenant of grace in his letter to Titus?
Paul writes:
Paul, a bond-servant of God and an apostle of Jesus Christ, for the faith of those chosen of God and the knowledge of the truth which is according to godliness, in the hope of eternal life, which God, who cannot lie, promised long ages ago, but at the proper time manifested, even His word, in the proclamation with which I was entrusted according to the commandment of God our Savior… (Titus 1:1-3)
What is meant by the phrase long ages ago?
This phrase long ages ago or πρὸ χρόνων αἰωνίων teaches us when God made this promise. Long ages ago means a long time ago.
Long ages ago does not mean before the time of creation. Why do you say that this promise was made in eternity past?
Unfortunately, the NASB translators left a key word out of their translation of this verse. The original clearly has the preposition “before” in it. Note here: ἐπ᾽ ἐλπίδι ζωῆς αἰωνίου ἣν ἐπηγγείλατο ὁ ἀψευδὴς θεὸς προ χρόνων αἰωνίων. See the comparison here:
| ASV 1901 | NASB 1995 | ESV |
| …in hope of eternal life, which God, who cannot lie, promised before times eternal; | …in the hope of eternal life, which God, who cannot lie, promised long ages ago, | …in hope of eternal life, which God, who never lies, promised before the ages began |
A footnote in the NASB alerts one to this fact. Why the preposition was left out is a mystery, but it’s a very important word here.
Why is it so important?
Because long ages ago simply means a long time ago. Before long ages ago means before time began or before the creation of the universe. You can see this by comparing Paul’s words in Romans 16 with what he to Titus:
Now to Him who is able to establish you according to my gospel and the preaching of Jesus Christ, according to the revelation of the mystery which has been kept secret for long ages past (χρόνοις αἰωνίοις), (Romans 16:25)
Note the difference between saying “long ages past” and “before long ages past.” The first is simply a reference to the past ages. The latter is referring to before the time of creation. Note this difference in Paul’s words to Timothy as well:
…who has saved us and called us with a holy calling, not according to our works, but according to His own purpose and grace which was granted us in Christ Jesus from all eternity (προ χρόνων αἰωνίων), (2 Timothy 1:9)
Finally, we find the same expression used in Paul’s letter to Corinth:
Yet we do speak wisdom among those who are mature; a wisdom, however, not of this age nor of the rulers of this age, who are passing away; but we speak God’s wisdom in a mystery, the hidden wisdom which God predestined before the ages (προ χρόνων αἰωνίων) to our glory; the wisdom which none of the rulers of this age has understood; for if they had understood it they would not have crucified the Lord of glory; (1 Corinthians 2:6-8)
Again, the reference here is to that “time” before time.
What other point can be made as to the proper understanding of this phrase long ages ago?
Note how Paul contrasts the long ages ago with at the proper time. Paul’s teaching is that the promise was made before creation but the promise was manifested in the preaching of the gospel after creation.
Sum this all up then.
From these verses, we conclude that God the Father made a covenant with His Son, Jesus Christ, in eternity past for the salvation of sinners.
Another assumption you’ve made in this verse is that God made this promise to Jesus. Since this is not explicitly stated here, what support do you find for this idea?
True, the recipient of the promise is not stated. That the recipient of this promise was Jesus, however, is clearly taught us by Jesus Himself.
Jesus’ Mission
Where does Jesus teach this?
Throughout Jesus’ ministry, He emphasizes that He is on a mission from the Father.
I can do nothing on My own initiative. As I hear, I judge; and My judgment is just, because I do not seek My own will, but the will of Him who sent Me. (John 5:30)
I have come in My Father’s name, and you do not receive Me; if another shall come in his own name, you will receive him. (John 5:43)
We see this most clearly in Jesus’ High Priestly prayer where Jesus refers to the authority which His Father had given Him:
Jesus spoke these things; and lifting up His eyes to heaven, He said, “Father, the hour has come; glorify Your Son, that the Son may glorify You, even as You gave Him authority over all flesh, that to all whom You have given Him, He may give eternal life. (John 17:1-2)
He speaks of the work that the Father had given Him to do:
I glorified You on the earth, having accomplished the work which You have given Me to do. (John 17:4)
The message Jesus had was given Him from the Father:
Now they have come to know that everything You have given Me is from You; for the words which You gave Me I have given to them; and they received them and truly understood that I came forth from You, and they believed that You sent Me. (John 17:7-8)
What else does Jesus teach us about His mission?
He teaches us that it was intended for a certain group of people:
I ask on their behalf; I do not ask on behalf of the world, but of those whom You have given Me; for they are Yours; (John 17:9)
Furthermore, Jesus prays, not just for those who are already His people, but also for those who will become His people in the future.
I do not ask for these only, but also for those who will believe in me through their word; (John 17:20)
Finally, Jesus gives us the most comprehensive statement of it in John 6:
For I have come down from heaven, not to do My own will, but the will of Him who sent Me. “And this is the will of Him who sent Me, that of all that He has given Me I lose nothing, but raise it up on the last day. “For this is the will of My Father, that everyone who beholds the Son and believes in Him, may have eternal life; and I Myself will raise him up on the last day. (John 6:38-40)
What can we conclude from all this?
From these verses, we conclude that the first and second person of the holy Trinity had an agreement. The terms of this agreement was that the Son would come to earth and redeem a select number of people whom the Father had chosen and given to Him for that purpose. From Luke 22 above, we conclude that this agreement was of the nature of a covenant.
What was the role of the Holy Spirit in this covenant?
The Bible does not say.
Does Jesus make any other reference to this covenant?
Yes, He promises those on His right that they will inherit a kingdom prepared from the foundation of the world. (Matthew 25:34)
Yes, and this is to be understood as before the foundation or creation of the world. Bengel writes (p443):
ἀπο καταβολῆς κόσμου, from the foundation of the world. The preposition ἀπο, from, corresponds with the Hebrew min, which signifies before; cf. Ephesians 1:4.
1 Peter 1
What is the teaching of Peter as it pertains to this covenant?
Peter teaches us that this covenant was “before the foundation of the world.”
If you address as Father the One who impartially judges according to each one’s work, conduct yourselves in fear during the time of your stay on earth; knowing that you were not redeemed with perishable things like silver or gold from your futile way of life inherited from your forefathers, but with precious blood, as of a lamb unblemished and spotless, the blood of Christ. For He was foreknown before the foundation of the world but has appeared in these last times for the sake of you… (1 Peter 1:17-20)
Again, we see that Christ was known by God before the creation or founding of the world. This knowledge was not a simple knowing but a knowing with affection and with choice. In light of the previous passages, we conclude that God the Father chose or elected Jesus and all those who are in union with Him.
Galatians 3
Earlier, we noted Paul’s teaching about the promise made in eternity past. What else does Paul say about this covenant?
Consider Paul’s teaching in Galatians:
Brethren, I speak in terms of human relations: even though it is only a man’s covenant, yet when it has been ratified, no one sets it aside or adds conditions to it. Now the promises were spoken to Abraham and to his seed. He does not say, “And to seeds,” as referring to many, but rather to one, “And to your seed,” that is, Christ. What I am saying is this… (Galatians 3:15-17)
Here Paul says the same thing as what he said in Titus 1:2. God made a promise to Abraham and his seed, but then Paul shows that really the “seed” here was Christ Himself. God made the promise of salvation originally to Christ. This is who we are to understand by “seed” in this verse. A few verses later, Paul says it again:
Why the Law then? It was added because of transgressions, having been ordained through angels by the agency of a mediator, until the seed would come to whom the promise had been made. (Galatians 3:19)
Paul teaches that God made a promise of salvation to the seed; i.e. to Christ. Believers participate in this salvation only as they are united to Christ. Where there is no union with Christ, there is no salvation.
Why is this important for our understanding of the covenant of grace?
It shows that at the heart of the covenant of grace is God’s promise to save sinful people. This promise is made to every believer in time, but it was originally made to Christ in eternity past as we saw previously. Salvation comes only as we are brought into a saving union with Jesus Christ.
2 Corinthians 1
What does Paul teach us here?
In this letter, Paul is often constrained to argue for his legitimate right to be heard as an apostle. One of the charges that Paul’s opponents in Corinth were making against him was that he was fickle. He changed his mind and would often promise something but then renege on that promise. Paul was “a yes and no man” they complained. Their suspicions were aroused especially by Paul’s change of travel plans. (2 Corinthians 2:1-4) See Wallace for the timeline of Paul’s relationship with the Corinthian church. Perhaps some of these men doubted Paul’s motives especially as it pertained to the monetary gift which Paul was collecting for the relief of the Jerusalem saints. (2 Corinthians 2:17; 7:2; 8:20–21; 11:7–11; 12:13–18). Paul defends himself by pointing to Jesus who was at the center of his preaching:
But as God is faithful, our word to you is not yes and no. For the Son of God, Christ Jesus, who was preached among you by us–by me and Silvanus and Timothy–was not yes and no, but is yes in Him. For as many as are the promises of God, in Him they are yes; therefore also through Him is our Amen to the glory of God through us. Now He who establishes us with you in Christ and anointed us is God, who also sealed us and gave us the Spirit in our hearts as a pledge. (2 Corinthians 1:18-22)
If Jesus is not yes and no then neither am I, writes Paul for his only goal was to proclaim Jesus as the Savior of sinners. (1 Corinthians 2:2)
What do these words teach us about the covenant of grace?
Because Paul teaches us here that Jesus is God’s yes. Then he goes on to state that all the promises of God are real and true to us because they are “in Him.” God the Father establishes us “in Christ” writes Paul.
Psalm 2
Are there other Scriptures which teach a covenant between God the Father and God the Son?
Yes, in the Psalms, Jesus announces that He will speak about God’s decree:
I will surely tell of the decree of the LORD: He said to Me, ‘You are My Son, Today I have begotten You. ‘Ask of Me, and I will surely give the nations as Your inheritance, And the very ends of the earth as Your possession. (Psalm 2:7-8) more here.
How can we know that Jesus is speaking in this Psalm?
In three separate places, the New Testament authors speak of this Psalm. First, Paul references this Psalm in his Pisidian Antioch sermon:
…that God has fulfilled this promise to our children in that He raised up Jesus, as it is also written in the second Psalm, ‘YOU ARE MY SON; TODAY I HAVE BEGOTTEN YOU.’ (Acts 13:33)
The author of Hebrews also quotes the second Psalm:
For to which of the angels did He ever say what he said to Jesus, “YOU ARE MY SON, TODAY I HAVE BEGOTTEN YOU“? (Hebrews 1:5)
Finally, the author of Hebrews again:
So also Christ did not glorify Himself so as to become a high priest, but He who said to Him, “YOU ARE MY SON, TODAY I HAVE BEGOTTEN YOU; (Hebrews 5:5)
In each of these, the assumption is that Jesus is speaking in this Psalm about God the Father’s mandate to Him in eternity past.
Why do you call it a “mandate”?
The word decree in v7 means a prescribed task or a mandate; see this explained here.
I will surely tell of the decree of the LORD: He said to Me, ‘You are My Son, Today I have begotten You. (Psalm 2:7)
From all of the above, what conclusions can we draw?
We conclude that God made a covenant with the Son in eternity past concerning the salvation of His elect people. God the Father gave His chosen people to His Son and sent Jesus to earth to save these people from their sin and to reconcile them to Himself.
The Historical Covenants
Are covenants important to our understanding of the Bible?
They surely are. As we read the Bible, we find that in addition to the covenant of grace in eternity past, God continues to administer His kingdom by making covenants with people. These covenants are called the historical covenants to distinguish them from God’s eternal covenant of grace with Christ. Rollock writes (p33):
Now, therefore, we are to speak of the Word, or of the Covenant of God, having first set down this ground, that all the word of God appertains to some covenant; for God speaks nothing to man without the covenant.
What are these covenants?
First there is the covenant God made in eternity past with His Son which has been explained here. Then there are the following historical covenants:
- a covenant of works (Genesis 2:16-17; Romans 5:18-19);
- covenant with all living things (Genesis 8:21; 9:17),
- a covenant with Abraham (Genesis 15:18),
- a covenant with Israel (Exodus 24:8),
- a covenant with David (Psalm 89:3).
- a new covenant that God will make with His people (Jeremiah 31:31; Luke 22:20; Hebrews 12:24).
Is there any connection between the eternal covenant of grace and the historical covenants in time?
Yes, the historical covenants are just manifestations of what was decided in eternity past.