Greek I; lesson 18

John 1:42

ἤγαγεν αὐτὸν πρὸς τὸν Ἰησοῦν. ἐμβλέψας αὐτῷ ὁ Ἰησοῦς εἶπεν· σὺ εἶ Σίμων ὁ υἱὸς Ἰωάννου, σὺ κληθήσῃ Κηφᾶς, ὃ ἑρμηνεύεται Πέτρος.

ἤγαγεν
ηγαγεν is unique in that it reduplicates in the aorist tense. because of this change in stem, the verb is a second aorist.
ἐμβλέψας
εμβλεψας is a verbal, is anarthrous and here is an adverbial participle. Since it is aorist tense, what key word should you use to translate it (BBG 28.4)?
How does GGBB page 171 apply to this verseεμβλεπω is one of those verbs that takes its object in the dative case.?
σὺ εἶ Σίμων ὁ υἱὸς Ἰωάννου,
Without analyzing its spelling, what case is Σιμωνnominative case? What function is it (principle 6)It is a predicate nominative.?
What is in apposition to what in this clauseυιος is in apposition to Σιμων?
 
σὺ κληθήσῃ Κηφᾶς, ὃ ἑρμηνεύεται Πέτρος.
What is the dependent clauseο ερμηνευεται Πετρος? DMWThe DMW is o (relative pronoun)? FunctionThe clause is adjectival.? What word is modifiedThis clause modifies the noun Κηφας?
κληθηση changes its stem in the future passive from καλε- to κλη-. You can easily discern that it is future passive from the tense formative (BBG 24.15).
Note that Κηφᾶς here is nominative because it is a PN. Some verbs, in addition to the forms of ειμι, take PNs as their complement, not objects. We have the same thing in English. The verb “taste”, for instance, takes a PN or a PA; e.g. This tastes great'great' is a predicate adjective..
 

---

John 1:43

Τῇ ἐπαύριον ἠθέλησεν ἐξελθεῖν εἰς τὴν Γαλιλαίαν καὶ εὑρίσκει Φίλιππον. καὶ λέγει αὐτῷ ὁ Ἰησοῦς· ἀκολούθει μοι.

Where is the complementary infinitive?εξελθειν is an infinitive, the complement of the verb ηθελησεν  
καὶ λέγει αὐτῷ ὁ Ἰησοῦς· ἀκολούθει μοι.
ακολουθει can be third singular as in Matt. 10:38, or it can be second singular imperative as here. The connecting vowel of ακολουθεω contracted with the epsilon ending for the second singular imperative ending to make ακολουθει (contraction).

ακολουθε-        stem
ακολουθεε          add the connecting vowel
ακολουθει            contraction

 

---

John 1:44

ἦν δὲ ὁ Φίλιππος ἀπὸ Βηθσαϊδά, ἐκ τῆς πόλεως Ἀνδρέου καὶ Πέτρου.

ἦν δὲ ὁ Φίλιππος ἀπὸ Βηθσαϊδά
Is ην action or linkinglinking? Is ην transitive or intransitiveAll linking verbs are intransitive.? What is the subject of ηνΦιλιππος?
Note the phrase ἐκ τῆς πόλεως Ἀνδρέου καὶ Πέτρου. What word does this phrase modifyIt is an adverbial prepositional phrase modifying the verb ην.?
In case you forgot the case endings, you can parse πολεως from knowing about εκ. This preposition always takes its OP in the genitive case.

• απο βηθσαιδα and ἐκ τῆς πόλεως Ἀνδρέου καὶ Πέτρου are both prepositional phrases modifying ην (and therefore adverbial in function).
• Aνδρεου and Πετρου are both genitives modifying πολεως (and therefore adjectival in function).

 

---

John 1:45

εὑρίσκει Φίλιππος τὸν Ναθαναὴλ καὶ λέγει αὐτῷ· ὃν ἔγραψεν Μωϋσῆς ἐν τῷ νόμῳ καὶ οἱ προφῆται εὑρήκαμεν, Ἰησοῦν υἱὸν τοῦ Ἰωσὴφ τὸν ἀπὸ Ναζαρέτ.

Know the contraction that takes place in εγραψεν.
ὃν ἔγραψεν Μωϋσῆς ἐν τῷ νόμῳ καὶ οἱ προφῆται is the DO of ευρηκαμεν. Why is the DMW in the accusative caseBecause it is functioning as the object of the verb εγραψεν. (BBG 14.10)?
Now look at Ιησουν, υιον, and τον. All are in apposition to ον (principle 38). The article τον is an orphan article. In this case, translate, “the One from Nazareth.”