English past tense verbs have -ed as a suffix. Similarly, Greek verbs showing past time will have an augment. In most cases, an augment is just an epsilon prefix. Note the prefix on the aorist forms here:
Person | Present Active | Aorist Active |
---|---|---|
1st Singular | λύω (I loose) | ἐλυσα (I loosed) |
2nd Singular | λύεις (you loose) | ἐλυσας (you loosed) |
3rd Singular | λύει (he/she/it looses) | ἐλυσεν (he/she/it loosed) |
1st Plural | λύομεν (we loose) | ἐλύσαμεν (we loosed) |
2nd Plural | λύετε (you loose) | ἐλύσατε (you loosed) |
3rd Plural | λύουσι (they loose) | ἐλυσαν (they loosed) |
Imperfect and aorist forms will have an augment. (BBG 21.10)
There are four ways verbs take an augment:
- The normal, expected way is if the verb begins with a consonant, then the augment is an epsilon prefix as above.
- If the verb begins with a single vowel, the augment is formed by lengthening that vowel (α to η, ε to η, ο to ω) so the verb ἀκούομεν would become ἤκουσαμεν.
- If the verb begins with a dipthong, either the first letter of the dipthong lengthens (ευχαριστεω ηυχαριστουν), or the dipthong is not changed at all (ευρισκω ευρισκον).
- In compound verbs, the augment will slide in directly between the preposition and the verb (καταλαμβανω to κατελαβεν).
Augments only occur in the indicative (principle 13).
Hebrew:
In KHW, they use the term “unaugmented” or “augmented” in the sense of “unaltered” or “changed”; e.g. the 3ms QTL in the the is unaugmented meaning it has no prefixes or suffixes added to it.
Does the following verb from 1 Peter 4:6 contain an augment? εὐηγγελίσθη
Yes, it does. It follows rule #3 above.